CPHRM Exam Duration & New CPHRM Exam Answers
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Our CPHRM training materials are compiled carefully with correct understanding of academic knowledge using the fewest words to express the most clear ideas, rather than unnecessary words expressions or sentences and try to avoid out-of-date words. And our CPHRM Exam Questions are always the latest questions and answers for our customers since we keep updating them all the time to make sure our CPHRM study guide is valid and the latest.
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New ASHRM CPHRM Exam Answers & Reliable CPHRM Test Guide
Our ASHRM CPHRM desktop and web-based practice software are embedded with mock exams, just like the actual ASHRM Data Center certification exam. The ValidTorrent designs its mock papers so smartly that you can easily prepare for the Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management (CPHRM) exam. All the essential questions are included, which have a huge chance of appearing in the real Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management (CPHRM) exam. Our mock exams may be customized so that you can change the topics and timings for each exam according to your preparation.
ASHRM Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management (CPHRM) Sample Questions (Q61-Q66):
NEW QUESTION # 61
What are the four elements of the SBAR situational briefing model?
- A. Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation
- B. Scene, Background, Assessment, Response
- C. Situation, Behavior, Action, Result
- D. Summary, Background, Action, Review
Answer: A
Explanation:
SBAR is a standardized communication framework used to reduce preventable harm caused by incomplete, unclear, or delayed clinical communication-especially during handoffs, escalations, and urgent updates. The four elements areSituation(what is happening now),Background(clinical context and relevant history), Assessment(what you think the problem is based on data), andRecommendation(what you need/request as the next step). By forcing concise structure, SBAR improves shared situational awareness, supports early recognition of deterioration, and reduces ambiguity ("hinting and hoping"). From a risk management standpoint, SBAR strengthens frontline reliability, decreases communication-related sentinel events, and supports defensible care by demonstrating a consistent escalation process. It also aligns with patient safety objectives: clearer teamwork, faster response to clinical changes, and fewer omissions during transitions of care.
NEW QUESTION # 62
Which of the following documents will an insurance underwriter use to provide an insurance quote?
- A. certificate of need
- B. application
- C. declaration page
- D. certificate of insurance
Answer: B
Explanation:
Under Health Care Risk Management principles supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, the insurance application is the primary document used by an underwriter to evaluate risk and generate a premium quote. The application provides detailed information about the organization's operations, services, patient volume, claims history, risk control measures, governance structure, and prior insurance coverage. This information enables the underwriter to assess exposure, determine eligibility, and calculate appropriate pricing and coverage terms.
A certificate of insurance is issued after a policy is in force to verify coverage to third parties and does not serve as a quoting document. The declaration page is part of an existing insurance policy and summarizes coverage limits, deductibles, and endorsements; it reflects finalized terms rather than information used to generate a quote. A certificate of need is a regulatory document related to state approval of healthcare facilities or services and is unrelated to underwriting.
Risk financing objectives emphasize accurate disclosure and thorough completion of insurance applications, as misrepresentation or omission may affect coverage validity. Therefore, the application is the document used by an underwriter to provide an insurance quote.
NEW QUESTION # 63
If a practitioner requests a telemedicine consult with another practitioner in another state, the consultant:
- A. Never needs any license
- B. May need to hold a valid license in the patient's state (requirements vary by state)
- C. Can rely on verbal permission from the ED nurse
- D. Can practice under the patient's insurance plan only
Answer: B
Explanation:
Telemedicine licensure is largely state-based in the U.S., and many states require the consulting clinician to be licensed in the state where the patient is located (with exceptions such as specific compacts, special telehealth registrations, or emergency provisions). Risk management objectives include verifying licensure
/credentialing before services, ensuring privileging-by-proxy processes where applicable, confirming malpractice coverage for telehealth and cross-state practice, and ensuring informed consent/privacy safeguards. Failure to comply can trigger regulatory penalties, payer issues, and liability exposure if care is delivered without proper authorization.
NEW QUESTION # 64
What is the difference between a deductible and a self-insured retention?
- A. A self-insured retention pays after carrier limits are exhausted.
- B. A deductible has to be paid before coverage is available.
- C. A self-insured retention is paid from operational fund.
- D. A deductible is subtracted from any amounts paid by a commercial carrier.
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management principles outlined by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, both deductibles and self-insured retentions are mechanisms used in risk financing to allocate a portion of loss to the insured organization. However, they function differently in relation to the insurer's obligation.
A deductible is typically subtracted from the amount paid by the commercial carrier. In many policies, the insurer may pay the full claim amount and then seek reimbursement of the deductible from the insured, or the insured may pay the deductible portion while the insurer handles defense and indemnity payments above that amount. The key distinction is that coverage attaches immediately, but the insured ultimately bears the deductible portion.
A self-insured retention differs in that the insured must satisfy the retention amount before the insurer's coverage is triggered. Until the retention is exhausted, the insured is responsible for payment and often for defense management.
Option B incorrectly describes a deductible as operating like a self-insured retention. Option C does not distinguish between the two mechanisms. Option D is incorrect because self-insured retention applies before, not after, carrier limits.
Therefore, the correct distinction is that a deductible is subtracted from amounts paid by the commercial carrier.
NEW QUESTION # 65
Which of the following best describes the appropriate scope of a risk manager's involvement in community disaster preparedness?
- A. Analyze liability risks arising from patient harm sustained due to strained or inadequate resources during a mass-casualty event.
- B. Quantify risk exposures associated with implementing the disaster plan.
- C. Calculate the value of human resources, equipment, and supplies consumed, with reimbursement to be obtained from FEMA.
- D. Incorporate emergency management into a comprehensive enterprise risk management plan designed to conserve and protect organizational assets.
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards endorsed by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, a risk manager's role in community disaster preparedness extends beyond narrow liability analysis. The appropriate scope involves integration of emergency management into the organization's broader enterprise risk management framework.
Enterprise risk management ERM is a structured, organization-wide approach to identifying, assessing, and managing risks that may affect strategic objectives, operations, financial stability, and reputation. Disaster preparedness is a critical operational risk that must be aligned with governance, compliance, continuity planning, and asset protection strategies. By incorporating emergency management into ERM, the risk manager ensures coordination across clinical services, facilities, supply chain, communications, and leadership structures.
Option A focuses only on post-event liability. Option C limits involvement to quantification without strategic integration. Option D addresses reimbursement processes rather than preparedness strategy.
Health Care Operations objectives emphasize collaboration with emergency management teams, regulatory compliance with preparedness standards, and resilience planning to protect patients, staff, and assets.
Therefore, integrating emergency management into a comprehensive enterprise risk management plan best defines the risk manager's appropriate scope of involvement.
NEW QUESTION # 66
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